130 Complex Analysis I
There only remains to show that (v) implies (ii). Assume that both f and f are holomorphic;
then the Cauchy equations allow us to write
( f ∈ H ) =⇒
∂ P
∂ x
=
∂ Q
∂ y
and ( f ∈ H ) =⇒
∂ P
∂ x
=
∂(−Q)
∂ y
,
and hence ∂ P /∂ x = 0; similarly ∂ P /∂ y = 0, so that P = C
nt
. Which, taking into account
the remarks above, completes the proof.
Solution of exercise 4 .4. One checks first that the l ap l acian can be written △ = 4∂∂. Then
write △|f |
2
= 4∂ ∂( f f ) = 4 ∂
(∂ f ) f + f (∂ f )
. Since f is holomorphic, we have ∂ f = 0
hence △|f |
2
= 4∂
f ∂ f
= 4∂ f ·∂ f since ∂ f is an antiholo morphic function; th u s ∂∂ f = 0.
To conclude, one finds
△|f |
2
= 4∂ f ·∂ f = 4 |∂ f |
2
.
Solution of exercise 4 .6. Disregarding the trivial case where f = 0, write then f = f
3
/ f
2
at any point where f does not vanish. But since f
2
is holomorphic, its zeros are isolated, and
therefore those of f also, since they are the same. Denote by Z the set of these zeros. Then
f is holomorphic on Ω \ Z and bounded in the neighborhood of each point in Z, which are
therefore artificial singularities. Hence, if we extend by continuity the functi on g = f
3
/ f
2
(by
putting g(z) = 0 for any x ∈ Z), the resulting function g is holo morphic by Theorem 4.56 on
page 108, and moreover g = f by construction.
Solution of exercise 4 .8. The function z 7→ (1/z
2
) being holomorphic o n the open set
Ω =
z ∈ C ; Im(z) > Re(z)
which contains the contour T , it admits a p rimitive on Ω ,
which is evidently z 7→ −1/z. Then
Z
T
1
z
2
dz =
−
1
z
i
p
3
3
=
1
3
+
i
p
3
.
Solution of exercise 4 .9. Show that the integrals on the vertical segments tend to 0 when
[R → ∞]. Show moreover that
Z
R
−R
e
−(x+ia/2)
2
dx = e
a
2
Z
R
−R
e
−x
2
cos ax dx
by parity. The integral considered is equal to
p
πe
−a
2
.
Solution of exercise 4 .10. The Laurent series expansion of the sine function coincides with
its Taylor series expansion and is given by
sin z = z −
z
3
3!
+
z
5
5!
−··· ; hence
sin z
z
2
=
1
z
−
z
3!
+
z
3
5!
−··· ,
and the residue is the coefficient of 1/z, namely 1.
Solution of exercise 4 .11. For the first integral, put
f (z) =
(1 + z) e
2i z
z
2
+ 2z + 2
and integrate by closing the contour from above (with justification!). The only residue inside
the contour is the one in z = 1 + i. The desired integral is the imaginary part of
R
γ
f (z) dz =
iπe
−2−2i
, which is (π cos2)/e
2
.
For the second i ntegral, close the contour from above, using Jordan’s second lemma, with
f (z) =
1
(1 + z
2
)
n
=
1
(z −i)
2
(z + i)
n
.