262 What is a Connector?
Perhaps the co-assumptional use of ‘but’ is different? After all, it will surely
be thought odd, or uncouth, to utter anything like
I know that if it’s day, it’s light, but it’s day.
The thing is a mouthful, and it is likely to be mispunctuated and misunder-
stood. But is it ungrammatical? I cannot see that it is; and so I incline to
think that the English word ‘but’ functions as a sentential connector when it
is used to connect a supplementary premiss to the rest of an argument.
Is the same true of the Greek ‘δέγε’ and of the other items which the
grammarians present as co-assumptional connectors? Is, say,
εἰ ἡμέρα ἐστί, φῶς ἐστί· ἡμέρα δέγε ἐστι
embeddable? Can it be negated, or can you say that you know or believe
that …? The answers to those questions, I take it, are Yes.
It is another question what the truth-conditions for such compound
sentences are. Some will suggest that ‘but’ may be replaced by ‘and’, and
‘δέγε’by‘καί’ (in an appropriate position), without any change in truth-value
or indeed in sense. Apollonius, however, says that ‘δέγε’promisesormeans
something other than ‘δέ’. And in his view, something of the form ‘P, Q
δέγε’ will presumably express a truth if and only if, first both P and Q are
true, and secondly, Q is a supplementary premiss in an argument in which P
is a preceding premiss.
What, finally, of inferential connectors, the connectors which introduce
the conclusion of an argument? Consider:
εἰ ἡμέρα ἐστί, φῶς ἐστί· ἡμέρα δέγε ἐστι· φῶς ἄρα ἐστι.
There, ‘ἄρα’ is—according to the ancient theory—a connector. It connects
the saying, ‘φῶς ἐστι’, to the sayings which precede it: it connects the
sentence which is the conclusion of the argument to the sentences which
are the premisses of the argument. The whole Greek sequence which I have
just cited—two premiss-sentences and a conclusion-sentence—is therefore
supposed to constitute a single saying, the structure of which might be
represented as follows:
(P, Q δέγε)Rἄρα
And that is comparable to, say,
If (P and Q) then R
To be sure, no ancient text actually says as much. But I cannot see what else
an ancient text could have said on the subject.
Nevertheless, if that was what the Greek grammarians wanted to say, surely
they were wrong? After all, translate the Greek into English and you get this:
If it’s light it’s day; but it’s light: therefore it’s day.