2.2 Elementary Properties 97
The essential feature of (2.2.5)and(2.2.6) is that “purely electric” and
“purely magnetic” are not relativistically meaningful notions since they are,
in general, not invariant under Lorentz transformations. How much of an
electromagnetic field is “electric” and how much “magnetic” depends on the
frame of reference from which it is being observed. This is the familiar phe-
nomemon of electromagnetic induction. For example, a charge deemed “at
rest” in one frame will give rise to a purely electric field in that frame, but,
viewed from another frame, will be “moving” and so will induce a nonzero
magnetic field as well.
Since
E
and
B
are spacelike one can, beginning with any admissible ba-
sis {e
1
,e
2
,e
3
,e
4
}, choose a right-handed orthonormal basis {ˆe
1
, ˆe
2
, ˆe
3
} for
Span{e
1
,e
2
,e
3
} such that
E
and
B
both lie in Span{ˆe
1
, ˆe
2
} (so that
ˆ
E
3
=
ˆ
B
3
= 0). Choosing a rotation
R
i
j
i,j=1,2,3
in this 3-dimensional Euclidean
space that accomplishes the change of coordinates ˆx
i
= R
i
j
x
j
,i=1, 2, 3,
the corresponding rotation [R
a
b
]
a,b=1,2,3,4
in L yields a new admissible coor-
dinate system in which the third components of
E
and
B
are zero. The gist
of all this is that one can, with little extra effort, work in a basis relative to
which the matrix of F has the form
⎡
⎢
⎢
⎣
00−B
2
E
1
00 B
1
E
2
B
2
−B
1
00
E
1
E
2
00
⎤
⎥
⎥
⎦
. (2.2.7)
Next we collect a few facts that will be of use in the remainder of the chap-
ter. We define the range and kernel (null space) of a linear transformation
T : M→Mby
rng T = {y ∈M: y = Tx for some x ∈M}
and
ker T = {x ∈M: Tx =0}.
Both rng T and ker T are obviously subspaces of M and, consequently, so
are their orthogonal complements (rng T )
⊥
and (ker T )
⊥
(Exercise 1.1.2).
Proposition 2.2.1 If F : M→Mis any nonzero, skew-symmetric linear
transformation on M,then
(a) ker F =(rngF )
⊥
,
(b) rng F =(kerF )
⊥
,
(c) dim(ker F ) is either 0 or 2 so dim(rng F ) is either 4 or 2, respectively.
Proof: (a) First let x ∈ (rng F )
⊥
.Thenx · Fy =0forally in M.Thus,
Fx · y =0forally in M. But the inner product on M is nondegenerate
so we must have Fx = 0, i.e., x ∈ ker F . Next suppose x ∈ ker F .Then
Fx = 0 implies Fx · y =0forally in M so x · Fy =0forally in M, i.e.,
x ∈ (rng F )
⊥
.