Naive Set Theory
25
thus exhibit in this respect an entirely different behavior from that of finite sets
[see example (c)]. This property can therefore be used to distinguish finite and
infinite sets independently of any enumeration.
(e) The set of all real functions defined on the interval [0, 1] is neither denu-
merable nor equipollent to the continuum.
The proof of this fact is obtained by a procedure which is again essentially
the second diagonal method. It is clear not only that there are infinitely many
distinct functions on [0, 1] but also that there exist uncountably many. For, at the
point x = 0 alone, the functions can already assume the uncountably many values
between 0 and 1. Thus, there remains to be proved only that the set of functions
is not equipollent to the continuum.
Suppose that the set of functions were equipollent to the continuum. Then it
would be possible to make the function f
(
x) and the points z of [0, 1] correspond
in a 1–1 manner. Denote by f
z
(
x) the function thus assigned to the point z. Now,
construct a function g(z) defined on the interval 0
≤ z ≤ 1 with the property that,
at every point z, g
(
z) ≠ f
z
(
z). Since g
(
z) is also a function defined on [0, 1], it
must coincide with an f
u
(
x); hence, in particular, g
(
u
) = f
u
(
u
). This, however, is
excluded by the definition of g(z). The assumption that the set of our functions is
equipollent to the continuum has thus led to a contradiction.
When two sets X and Y are given, precisely one of the following cases can
occur:
(a)
X is equipollent to a subset of Y.
(b)
X is equipollent to no subsets of Y.
Likewise, exactly one of the following possibilities can take place:
(1)
Y is equipollent to a subset of X,
(2)
Y is equipollent to no subsets of X.
There are four combinations of these two pairs of cases, vis., (a)(1), (a)(2),
(b)(1), (b)(2). In the two middle cases
⏐
X
⏐< ⏐
Y
⏐
and
⏐
Y
⏐ <⏐
X
⏐.
Case (b)(2) means
that X and Y are not comparable. We will show that this case never occurs. Case
(a)(1) is discussed next.
Theorem 2.3.2 [Bernstein’s Equipollence Theorem].
If each of two sets X and
Y is equipollent to a subset of the other, then X ~ Y.
Proof: Assume that f : X
→ Y and g : Y → X are both 1–1 functions. Let
A
0
= X – g
(
Y ), B
0
= Y – f
(
X
), and define inductively