Disjunctive Arguments 513
(8) A does not hold of some C 4, 7, impossibility
(9) It is not the case that it is not the case
that A does not hold of some C 3, 8, disjunctive syllogism
(10) A does not hold of some C 9, double negation
If that is the way of construing reductions to the impossible, then they
do indeed involve disjunctive arguments from a contradiction; but the
disjunctive arguments which they involve are not repetitive arguments, and
they do not offend against the ‘something other’ clause in the Aristotelian
definition of the syllogism.
But that cannot be how Alexander himself saw the matter; for had he seen it
in that way, then he would have had no reason to discuss disjunctive arguments
from a contradiction in his commentary on Aristotle’s definition. He discusses
such arguments only because they seem to offend against the definition.
What Alexander actually says about the arguments is perplexing. Of course,
he is right when he remarks that ‘It is day’ can be used both to affirm that it
is day and also to deny that it is not day. ‘It’s day’, I cry: ‘Yes, it’s day’, you
murmur. ‘It’s not day’, I groan. ‘It’s day’, you retort. But his argument for
thinking that there is a distinction between these two uses is odd: if I want to
affirm that it is day, he says, then there is no sentence I would prefer to the
trusty ‘It’s day’; but if I want to deny that it’s not day, then I would choose
some other sentence if only there were one—I would choose a sentence
whose primary meaning was to deny that it’s not day. But there is such a
sentence, namely ‘It’s not not day’.
Again, insofar as Alexander imagines that there is an ambiguity in ‘It’s
day’ (and therefore in every sentence whatsoever), he is surely mistaken. In
‘No, it’s day’, the sentence ‘It’s day’ means just what it means in ‘Yes, it’s
day’. Moreover, if there were a difference in meaning, then there would be
a difference in meaning between ‘It’s day’ and ‘It’s not not day’; and in that
case—as I have already said—the argument which Alexander defends, and
which he needs to defend, is not after all a repetitive argument. In any event,
elsewhere, Alexander states that
‘It is not not day’ differs from ‘It is day’ only in expression.
(in APr 18.7–8)⁷⁵
But in that case, how can there be any difference in force or meaning between
the two uses of ‘It’s day’?
⁷⁵ τὸ γὰρ οὐχὶ οὐχ ἡμέρα ἐστί τοῦ ἡμέρα ἐστί μόνῃ τῇ λέξει διαφέρει.