9.7 Dirichlet Problem for a Rectangle 345
To prove the existence of solution (9.7.6), we first note that
sinh
nπ
a
(b − y)
sinh
nπb
a
= e
−nπ y/a
1 − e
−(2nπ/a)(b−y)
1 − e
−2nπ b/a
≤ C
1
e
−nπ y/a
,
where C
1
is a constant. Since f (x) is bounded, we have
|a
∗
n
|≤
2
a
a
0
|f (x)|dx = C
2.
Thus, the series for u (x, y) is dominated by the series
∞
n=1
Me
−nπy
0
/a
for y ≥ y
0
> 0,M= constant,
and hence, u (x, y) converges uniformly in x and y whenever 0 ≤ x ≤ a,
y ≥ y
0
> 0. Consequently, u (x, y) is continuous in this region and satisfies
the boundary values u (0,y)=u (a, y)=u (x, b)=0.
Now differentiating u twice with respect to x, we obtain
u
xx
(x, y)=
∞
n=1
−a
∗
n
nπ
a
2
sinh
nπ
a
(b − y)
sinh
nπb
a
sin
nπx
a
and differentiating u twice with respect to y, we obtain
u
yy
(x, y)=
∞
n=1
a
∗
n
nπ
a
2
sinh
nπ
a
(b − y)
sinh
nπb
a
sin
nπx
a
.
It is evident that the series for u
xx
and u
yy
are both dominated by
∞
n=1
M
∗
n
2
e
−nπy
0
/a
and hence, converge uniformly for any 0 <y
0
<b. It follows that u
xx
and
u
yy
exist, and hence, u satisfies the Laplace equation.
It now remains to show that u (x, 0) = f (x). Let f (x) be a continuous
function and let f
′
(x) be piecewise continuous on [0,a]. If, in addition,
f (0) = f (a) = 0, then, the Fourier series for f (x) converges uniformly.
Putting y = 0 in the series f or u (x, y), we obtain
u (x , 0) =
∞
n=1
a
∗
n
sin
nπx
a
.
Since u (x, 0) converges uniformly to f (x), we write, for ε>0,
|s
m
(x, 0) − s
n
(x, 0)| <ε for m, n > N
ε
,