
62 • How to Solve Limit Problems Involving Polynomials
term of p. Here’s what I’m claiming: when x is really really large, p(x) and
p
L
(x) are relatively close to each other. More precisely, we have
lim
x→∞
p(x)
p
L
(x)
= 1.
Before we see why this is true, let’s just look at the implications of what it is
saying. Imagine that the limit wasn’t there. This equation would say
p(x)
p
L
(x)
= 1,
which means that p(x) = p
L
(x). Well, that clearly isn’t true (at least for most
values of x), but the larger x is, the closer it is to being true. So why not just
write
lim
x→∞
p(x) = lim
x→∞
p
L
(x)?
This is actually true, but it’s meaningless because both sides are ∞. So we
have to settle for saying that p(x) and p
L
(x) are very close to each other in
the sense that their ratio is close to 1. As x gets large, the ratio approaches
1 without ever necessarily equaling 1.
Does this make sense? Why is it the leading term, anyway? Why not one
PSfrag replacements
(
a, b)
[
a, b]
(
a, b]
[
a, b)
(
a, ∞)
[
a, ∞)
(
−∞, b)
(
−∞, b]
(
−∞, ∞)
{
x : a < x < b}
{
x : a ≤ x ≤ b}
{
x : a < x ≤ b}
{
x : a ≤ x < b}
{
x : x ≥ a}
{
x : x > a}
{
x : x ≤ b}
{
x : x < b}
R
a
b
shadow
0
1
4
−
2
3
−
3
g(
x) = x
2
f(
x) = x
3
g(
x) = x
2
f(
x) = x
3
mirror (
y = x)
f
−
1
(x) =
3
√
x
y = h
(x)
y = h
−
1
(x)
y = (
x − 1)
2
−
1
x
Same height
−
x
Same length,
opposite signs
y = −
2x
−
2
1
y =
1
2
x − 1
2
−
1
y = 2
x
y = 10
x
y = 2
−
x
y = log
2
(
x)
4
3 units
mirror (
x-axis)
y = |
x|
y = |
log
2
(x)|
θ radians
θ units
30
◦
=
π
6
45
◦
=
π
4
60
◦
=
π
3
120
◦
=
2
π
3
135
◦
=
3
π
4
150
◦
=
5
π
6
90
◦
=
π
2
180
◦
= π
210
◦
=
7
π
6
225
◦
=
5
π
4
240
◦
=
4
π
3
270
◦
=
3
π
2
300
◦
=
5
π
3
315
◦
=
7
π
4
330
◦
=
11
π
6
0
◦
= 0 radians
θ
hypotenuse
opposite
adjacent
0 (
≡ 2π)
π
2
π
3
π
2
I
II
III
IV
θ
(
x, y)
x
y
r
7
π
6
reference angle
reference angle =
π
6
sin +
sin −
cos +
cos −
tan +
tan −
A
S
T
C
7
π
4
9
π
13
5
π
6
(this angle is
5
π
6
clockwise)
1
2
1
2
3
4
5
6
0
−
1
−
2
−
3
−
4
−
5
−
6
−
3π
−
5
π
2
−
2π
−
3
π
2
−
π
−
π
2
3
π
3
π
5
π
2
2
π
3
π
2
π
π
2
y = sin(
x)
1
0
−
1
−
3π
−
5
π
2
−
2π
−
3
π
2
−
π
−
π
2
3
π
5
π
2
2
π
2
π
3
π
2
π
π
2
y = sin(
x)
y = cos(
x)
−
π
2
π
2
y = tan(
x), −
π
2
< x <
π
2
0
−
π
2
π
2
y = tan(
x)
−
2π
−
3π
−
5
π
2
−
3
π
2
−
π
−
π
2
π
2
3
π
3
π
5
π
2
2
π
3
π
2
π
y = sec(
x)
y = csc(
x)
y = cot(x)
y = f(x)
−1
1
2
y = g(x)
3
y = h(x)
4
5
−2
f(x) =
1
x
g(x) =
1
x
2
etc.
0
1
π
1
2π
1
3π
1
4π
1
5π
1
6π
1
7π
g(x) = sin
1
x
1
0
−1
L
10
100
200
y =
π
2
y = −
π
2
y = tan
−1
(x)
π
2π
y =
sin(x)
x
, x > 3
0
1
−1
a
L
f(x) = x sin (1/x)
(0 < x < 0.3)
h(x) = x
g(x) = −x
a
L
lim
x→a
+
f(x) = L
lim
x→a
+
f(x) = ∞
lim
x→a
+
f(x) = −∞
lim
x→a
+
f(x) DNE
lim
x→a
−
f(x) = L
lim
x→a
−
f(x) = ∞
lim
x→a
−
f(x) = −∞
lim
x→a
−
f(x) DNE
M
}
lim
x→a
−
f(x) = M
lim
x→a
f(x) = L
lim
x→a
f(x) DNE
lim
x→∞
f(x) = L
lim
x→∞
f(x) = ∞
lim
x→∞
f(x) = −∞
lim
x→∞
f(x) DNE
lim
x→−∞
f(x) = L
lim
x→−∞
f(x) = ∞
lim
x→−∞
f(x) = −∞
lim
x→−∞
f(x) DNE
lim
x →a
+
f(x) = ∞
lim
x →a
+
f(x) = −∞
lim
x →a
−
f(x) = ∞
lim
x →a
−
f(x) = −∞
lim
x →a
f(x) = ∞
lim
x →a
f(x) = −∞
lim
x →a
f(x) DNE
y = f (x)
a
of the other terms? If you want, you can skip to the next paragraph and see
the mathematical proof; first, however, I’d like to get a feel for what happens
in our example, p(x) = 3x
3
− 1000x
2
+ 5x − 7, by testing it on actual large
values of x. Let’s start off with x = 100. In that case, 3x
3
is 3 million, while
1000x
2
is 10 million. The quantity 5x is only 500, and the 7 doesn’t make
much difference, so all together we can see that p(100) is about −7 million. On
the other hand, p
L
(100) is 3 million, so it’s not looking so great: p(100) and
p
L
(100) are completely different. Let’s not lose heart—after all, 100 isn’t that
large. Suppose we instead set x equal to 1,000,000—that’s a million. Then
3x
3
is freakin’ huge: it’s 3,000,000,000,000,000,000, or three million trillion!
In comparison, 1000x
2
is relatively puny at only a thousand trillion (that’s
1,000,000,000,000,000) and 5x is only 5 million, which is a microscopic speck
of dust in comparison to these numbers. The −7 term is just laughable and
makes no noticeable difference. So, to calculate p(1,000,000), we need to take
3 million trillion and take away a thousand trillion plus some spare change (a
little under 5 million). Let’s face it, it’s still darned close to 3 million trillion!
After all, how many trillions are we dealing with here? We have 3 million of
them, and we’re taking away a mere one thousand of them, so we still have
almost 3 million trillions. That is, p(1,000,000) is about 3 million trillion—but
that is exactly the value of p
L
(1,000,000). The point is that the highest-degree
term is growing much faster than the other terms as x gets large. Indeed, if
you replace 1,000,000 with an even larger number, the difference between x
3
and the lower order terms like x
2
and x becomes even more pronounced.
Enough philosophical rambling. Let’s try to give a real proof that
lim
x→∞
p(x)
p
L
(x)
= 1.
We have to do some actual math. Start off by writing
lim
x→∞
p(x)
p
L
(x)
= lim
x→∞
3x
3
− 1000x
2
+ 5x − 7
3x
3