
APPENDIX B Solutions to Exercises
435
using in the last step Eq. (A.44). This is indeed equal to Eq. (4.11) because
the order in spinor dot products does not matter.
4.3 The second term of Eq. (4.13) agrees with the second term of Eq. (4.12). Let’s
focus on the first term. First, use Eq. (A.5) to get rid of the σ
2
matrices:
iχ
T
¯
e
σ
2
σ
μ
∂
μ
σ
2
χ
†T
¯
e
= iχ
T
¯
e
¯σ
μT
∂
μ
χ
†T
¯
e
Next, we use Eq. (A.36) to get rid of all the annoying transpose operations:
iχ
T
¯
e
¯σ
μT
∂
μ
χ
†T
¯
e
=−i
∂
μ
χ
†
¯
e
¯σ
μ
χ
¯
e
Finally, we do an integration by parts to get the derivative to act on the spinor
on the right:
−i
∂
μ
χ
†
¯
e
¯σ
μ
χ
¯
e
= iχ
†
¯
e
¯σ
μ
∂
μ
χ
¯
e
which is the first term of Eq. (4.13).
4.4 In Eq. (4.14), an integration by parts has been performed on one of the deriva-
tives, which introduced a minus sign. We must replace ∂
μ
by ∂
μ
−ieA
μ
before
any integration by parts on ∂
μ
has been made. After an integration by parts,
we have to make the replacement ∂
μ
→ ∂
μ
+ieA
μ
, but this gets confusing
because we must keep track of which partial derivative has been integrated
by parts!
5.1 For the hermitian conjugate of the scalar field transformation, the proof is
trivial if we use Eq. (A.44) and the fact that the order does not matter in spinor
dot products:
(δφ)
†
= (ζ · χ)
†
=
¯
ζ · ¯χ = ¯χ ·
¯
ζ = χ
†
(iσ
2
)ζ
∗
where the last equality follows from the definition of the dot product between
barred spinors.
Now consider
(δχ )
†
=
−C
∗
(∂
μ
φ) σ
μ
iσ
2
ζ
∗
†
Using the fact that (AB)
†
= B
†
A
†
,weget
(δχ )
†
=−C(∂
μ
φ
†
)ζ
T
(iσ
2
)
†
(σ
μ
)
†