ISACA. CISA Practice Questions 2009 All
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2009 CISA PRACTICE QUESTION ALL(800)
QUESTIONS:
1
、
Which of the following antispam filtering techniques would BEST
prevent a valid, variable-length e-mail message containing a heavily
weighted spam keyword from being labeled as spam?
A
、
Heuristic (rule-based)
B
、
Signature-based
C
、
Pattern matching
D
、
Bayesian (statistical)
ANSWER:D
NOTE:Bayesian filtering applies statistical modeling to messages, by
performing a frequency analysis on each word within the message and then
evaluating the message as a whole. Therefore, it can ignore a suspicious
keyword if the entire message is within normal bounds. Heuristic filtering
is less effective, since new exception rules may need to be defined when a
valid message is labeled as spam. Signature-based filtering is useless
against variable-length messages, because the calculated MD5 hash changes
all the time. Finally, pattern matching is actually a degraded rule-based
technique, where the rules operate at the word level using wildcards, and
not at higher levels.
2
、
An offsite information processing facility with electrical wiring, air
conditioning and flooring, but no computer or communications equipment, is
a:
A
、
cold site.
B
、
warm site.
C
、
dial-up site.
D
、
duplicate processing facility.
ANSWER:A
NOTE:A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any
components at the site in advance of the need. A warm site is an offsite
backup facility that is partially configured with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment—such as disk and tape units, controllers and
CPUs—to operate an information processing facility. A duplicate
information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery
site that can back up critical applications.
3
、
Which of the following is MOST directly affected by network
performance monitoring tools?
A
、
Integrity
B
、
Availability
C
、
Completeness
D
、
Confidentiality
ANSWER:B
NOTE:In case of a disruption in service, one of the key functions of
network performance monitoring tools is to ensure that the information has
remained unaltered. It is a function of security monitoring to assure
confidentiality by using such tools as encryption. However, the most
important aspect of network performance is assuring the ongoing dependence
on connectivity to run the business. Therefore, the characteristic that
benefits the most from network monitoring is availability.
4
、
An IS auditor invited to a development project meeting notes that no
project risks have been documented. When the IS auditor raises this issue,
the project manager responds that it is too early to identify risks and
that, if risks do start impacting the project, a risk manager will be
hired. The appropriate response of the IS auditor would be to:
A
、
stress the importance of spending time at this point in the project
to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans.
B
、
accept the project manager's position as the project manager is
accountable for the outcome of the project.
C
、
offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed.
D
、
inform the project manager that the IS auditor will conduct a review
of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the
project.
ANSWER:A
NOTE:The majority of project risks can typically be identified before a
project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be put in place to
deal with these risks. A project should have a clear link back to
corporate strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The
process of setting corporate strategy, setting objectives and developing
tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a
risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been
impacted by risks is misguided. Risk management needs to be forward
looking; allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the
project represents a failure of risk management. With or without a risk
manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be
consulted and encouraged to comment when they believe new risks have
emerged or risk priorities have changed. The IS auditor has an obligation
to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate
project management practices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a
risk manager represents an unnecessary and dangerous delay to implementing
risk management.
5
、
In a public key infrastructure, a registration authority:
A
、
verifies information supplied by the subject requesting a
certificate.
B
、
issues the certificate after the required attributes are verified
and the keys are generated.
C
、
digitally signs a message to achieve nonrepudiation of the signed
message.
D
、
registers signed messages to protect them from future repudiation.
ANSWER:A
NOTE:A registration authority is responsible for verifying information
supplied by the subject requesting a certificate, and verifies the
requestor's right to request certificate attributes and that the requestor
actually possesses the private key corresponding to the public key being
sent. Certification authorities, not registration authorities, actually
issue certificates once verification of the information has been
completed; because of this, choice B is incorrect. On the other hand, the
sender who has control of their private key signs the message, not the
registration authority. Registering signed messages is not a task
performed by registration authorities.
6
、
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to an IS auditor
reviewing the BCP?
A
、
The disaster levels are based on scopes of damaged functions, but
not on duration.
B
、
The difference between low-level disaster and software incidents is
not clear.
C
、
The overall BCP is documented, but detailed recovery steps are not
specified.
D
、
The responsibility for declaring a disaster is not identified.
ANSWER:D
NOTE:If nobody declares the disaster, the response and recovery plan would
not be invoked, making all other concerns mute. Although failure to
consider duration could be a problem, it is not as significant as scope,
and neither is as critical as the need to have someone invoke the plan.
The difference between incidents and low-level disasters is always unclear
and frequently revolves around the amount of time required to correct the
damage. The lack of detailed steps should be documented, but their absence
does not mean a lack of recovery, if in fact someone has invoked the plan.
7
、
Which of the following is the key benefit of control self-assessment
(CSA)?
A
、
Management ownership of the internal controls supporting business
objectives is reinforced.
B
、
Audit expenses are reduced when the assessment results are an input
to external audit work.
C
、
Improved fraud detection since internal business staff are engaged
in testing controls
D
、
Internal auditors can shift to a consultative approach by using the
results of the assessment.
ANSWER:A
NOTE:The objective of control self-assessment is to have business
management become more aware of the importance of internal control and
their responsibility in terms of corporate governance. Reducing audit
expenses is not a key benefit of control self-assessment (CSA). Improved
fraud detection is important, but not as important as ownership, and is
not a principal objective of CSA. CSA may give more insights to internal
auditors, allowing them to take a more consultative role; however, this is
an additional benefit, not the key benefit.
8
、
An IS auditor evaluating logical access controls should FIRST:
A
、
document the controls applied to the potential access paths to the
system.
B
、
test controls over the access paths to determine if they are
functional.
C
、
evaluate the security environment in relation to written policies
and practices.
D
、
obtain an understanding of the security risks to information
processing.
ANSWER:D
NOTE:When evaluating logical access controls, an IS auditor should first
obtain an understanding of the security risks facing information
processing by reviewing relevant documentation, by inquiries, and by
conducting a risk assessment. Documentation and evaluation is the second
step in assessing the adequacy, efficiency and effectiveness, thus
identifying deficiencies or redundancy in controls. The third step is to
test the access paths—to determine if the controls are functioning.
Lastly, the IS auditor evaluates the security environment to assess its
adequacy by reviewing the written policies, observing practices and
comparing them to appropriate security best practices.
9
、
The logical exposure associated with the use of a checkpoint restart
procedure is:
A
、
denial of service.
B
、
an asynchronous attack.
C
、
wire tapping.
D
、
computer shutdown.
ANSWER:B
NOTE:Asynchronous attacks are operating system-based attacks. A checkpoint
restart is a feature that stops a program at specified intermediate points
for later restart in an orderly manner without losing data at the
checkpoint. The operating system saves a copy of the computer programs and
data in their current state as well as several system parameters
describing the mode and security level of the program at the time of
stoppage. An asynchronous attack occurs when an individual with access to
this information is able to gain access to the checkpoint restart copy of
the system parameters and change those parameters such that upon restart
the program would function at a higher-priority security level.
10
、
Many organizations require an employee to take a mandatory vacation
(holiday) of a week or more to:
A
、
ensure the employee maintains a good quality of life, which will
lead to greater productivity.
B
、
reduce the opportunity for an employee to commit an improper or
illegal act.
C
、
provide proper cross-training for another employee.
D
、
eliminate the potential disruption caused when an employee takes
vacation one day at a time.
ANSWER:B
NOTE:Required vacations/holidays of a week or more in duration in which
someone other than the regular employee performs the job function is often
mandatory for sensitive positions, as this reduces the opportunity to
commit improper or illegal acts. During this time it may be possible to
discover any fraudulent activity that was taking place. Choices A, C and D
could all be organizational benefits from a mandatory vacation policy, but
they are not the reason why the policy is established.
11
、
To determine how data are accessed across different platforms in a
heterogeneous environment, an IS auditor should FIRST review:
A
、
business software.
B
、
infrastructure platform tools.
C
、
application services.
D
、
system development tools.
ANSWER:C
NOTE:Projects should identify the complexities of the IT Infrastructure
that can be simplified or isolated by the development of application
services. Application services isolate system developers from the
complexities of the IT infrastructure and offer common functionalities
that are shared by many applications. Application services take the form
of interfaces, middleware, etc. Business software focuses on business
processes, whereas application services bridge the gap between
applications and the IT Infrastructure components. Infrastructure platform
tools are related to core hardware and software components required for
development of the IT infrastructure. Systems development tools represent
development components of the IT infrastructure development.
12
、
An integrated test facility is considered a useful audit tool because
it:
A
、
is a cost-efficient approach to auditing application controls.
B
、
enables the financial and IS auditors to integrate their audit
tests.
C
、
compares processing output with independently calculated data.
D
、
provides the IS auditor with a tool to analyze a large range of
information.
ANSWER:C
NOTE:An integrated test facility is considered a useful audit tool because
it uses the same programs to compare processing using independently
calculated data. This involves setting up dummy entities on an application
system and processing test or production data against the entity as a
means of verifying processing accuracy.
13
、
An IS auditor evaluates the test results of a modification to a
system that deals with payment computation. The auditor finds that 50
percent of the calculations do not match predetermined totals. Which of
the following would MOST likely be the next step in the audit?
A
、
Design further tests of the calculations that are in error.
B
、
Identify variables that may have caused the test results to be
inaccurate.
C
、
Examine some of the test cases to confirm the results.
D
、
Document the results and prepare a report of findings, conclusions
and recommendations.
ANSWER:C
NOTE:An IS auditor should next examine cases where incorrect calculations
occurred and confirm the results. After the calculations have been
confirmed, further tests can be conducted and reviewed. Report
preparation, findings and recommendations would not be made until all
results are confirmed.
14
、
The PRIMARY objective of performing a postincident review is that it
presents an opportunity to:
A
、
improve internal control procedures.
B
、
harden the network to industry best practices.
C
、
highlight the importance of incident response management to
management.
D
、
improve employee awareness of the incident response process.
ANSWER:A
NOTE:A postincident review examines both the cause and response to an
incident. The lessons learned from the review can be used to improve
internal controls. Understanding the purpose and structure of postincident
reviews and follow-up procedures enables the information security manager
to continuously improve the security program. Improving the incident
response plan based on the incident review is an internal (corrective)
control. The network may already be hardened to industry best practices.
Additionally, the network may not be the source of the incident. The
primary objective is to improve internal control procedures, not to
highlight the importance of incident response management (IRM), and an
incident response (IR) review does not improve employee awareness.
15
、
When conducting a penetration test of an organization's internal
network, which of the following approaches would BEST enable the conductor
of the test to remain undetected on the network?
A
、
Use the IP address of an existing file server or domain controller.
B
、
Pause the scanning every few minutes to allow thresholds to reset.
C
、
Conduct the scans during evening hours when no one is logged-in.
D
、
Use multiple scanning tools since each tool has different
characteristics.
ANSWER:B
NOTE:Pausing the scanning every few minutes avoids overtaxing the network
as well as exceeding thresholds that may trigger alert messages to the
network administrator. Using the IP address of a server would result in an
address contention that would attract attention. Conducting scans after
hours would increase the chance of detection, since there would be less
traffic to conceal ones activities. Using different tools could increase
the likelihood that one of them would be detected by an intrusion
detection system.
16
、
An organization has implemented a disaster recovery plan. Which of
the following steps should be carried out next?
A
、
Obtain senior management sponsorship.
B
、
Identify business needs.
C
、
Conduct a paper test.
D
、
Perform a system restore test.
ANSWER:C
NOTE:A best practice would be to conduct a paper test. Senior management
sponsorship and business needs identification should have been obtained
prior to implementing the plan. A paper test should be conducted first,
followed by system or full testing.
17
、
This question refers to the following diagram.
E-mail traffic from the Internet is routed via firewall-1 to the mail
gateway. Mail is routed from the mail gateway, via firewall-2, to the mail
recipients in the internal network. Other traffic is not allowed. For
example, the firewalls do not allow direct traffic from the Internet to
the internal network.
The intrusion detection system (IDS) detects traffic for the internal
network that did not originate from the mail gateway. The FIRST action
triggered by the IDS should be to:
A
、
alert the appropriate staff.
B
、
create an entry in the log.
C
、
close firewall-2.
D
、
close firewall-1.
ANSWER:C
NOTE:Traffic for the internal network that did not originate from the mail
gateway is a sign that firewall-1 is not functioning properly. This may
have been be caused by an attack from a hacker. Closing firewall-2 is the
first thing that should be done, thus preventing damage to the internal
network. After closing firewall-2, the malfunctioning of firewall-1 can be
investigated. The IDS should trigger the closing of firewall-2 either
automatically or by manual intervention. Between the detection by the IDS
and a response from the system administrator valuable time can be lost, in
which a hacker could also compromise firewall-2. An entry in the log is
valuable for later analysis, but before that, the IDS should close
firewall-2. If firewall-1 has already been compromised by a hacker, it
might not be possible for the IDS to close it.
18
、
What is the MOST prevalent security risk when an organization
implements remote virtual private network (VPN) access to its network?
A
、
Malicious code could be spread across the network
B
、
VPN logon could be spoofed
C
、
Traffic could be sniffed and decrypted
D
、
VPN gateway could be compromised
ANSWER:A
NOTE:VPN is a mature technology; VPN devices are hard to break. However,
when remote access is enabled, malicious code in a remote client could
spread to the organization's network. Though choices B, C and D are
security risks, VPN technology largely mitigates these risks.
19
、
When developing a business continuity plan (BCP), which of the
following tools should be used to gain an understanding of the
organization's business processes?
A
、
Business continuity self-audit
B
、
Resource recovery analysis
C
、
Risk assessment
D
、
Gap analysis
ANSWER:C
NOTE:Risk assessment and business impact assessment are tools for
understanding business-for-business continuity planning. Business
continuity self-audit is a tool for evaluating the adequacy of the BCP,
resource recovery analysis is a tool for identifying a business resumption
strategy, while the role gap analysis can play in business continuity
planning is to identify deficiencies in a plan. Neither of these is used
for gaining an understanding of the business.
20
、
The PRIMARY objective of implementing corporate governance by an
organization's management is to:
A
、
provide strategic direction.
B
、
control business operations.
C
、
align IT with business.
D
、
implement best practices.
ANSWER:A
NOTE:Corporate governance is a set of management practices to provide
strategic direction, thereby ensuring that goals are achievable, risks are
properly addressed and organizational resources are properly utilized.
Hence, the primary objective of corporate governance is to provide
strategic direction. Based on the strategic direction, business operations
are directed and controlled.
21
、
Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDSs) will MOST
likely generate false alarms resulting from normal network activity?
A
、
Statistical-based
B
、
Signature-based
C
、
Neural network
D
、
Host-based
ANSWER:A
NOTE:A statistical-based IDS relies on a definition of known and expected
behavior of systems. Since normal network activity may at times include
unexpected behavior (e.g., a sudden massive download by multiple users),
these activities will be flagged as suspicious. A signature-based IDS is
limited to its predefined set of detection rules, just like a virus
scanner. A neural network combines the previous two IDSs to create a
hybrid and better system. Host-based is another classification of IDS. Any
of the three IDSs above may be host- or network-based.
22
、
As a driver of IT governance, transparency of IT's cost, value and
risks is primarily achieved through:
A
、
performance measurement.
B
、
strategic alignment.