Betsy T., Keogh J. Microbiology Demystified
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peutic agent. The minimal bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration
of a chemotherapeutic agent needed to kill a pathogen.
The broth dilution test requires that a broth containing the drug be placed in
wells of a plastic tray in a sequence of decreasing concentrations of the drug.
Each well is inoculated with the bacteria. After an incubation period, each well
is examined to determine the effectiveness of the concentration of the chemo-
therapeutic agent. The well that shows no pathogen growth with the lowest con-
centration of the chemotherapeutic agent signifies the MIC and MBC that should
be used to treat the disease caused by the pathogen.
Clinical laboratories used an automated broth dilution test where a computer
scans wells and reports results.
Quiz
1. Antibiosis is
(a) an inactive compound
(b) an antibiotic
(c) narrow-spectrum
(d) broad-spectrum
2. Prokaryotic cells are human cells that are targeted by bacteria.
(a) True
(b) False
3. The way in which an antibiotic attacks a pathogenic microorganism is
called
(a) lipophilic
(b) hydrophilic
(c) lipopolysaccharide
(d) antimicrobial activity
4. A superinfection is caused by
(a) a pathogen that is resistant to the antibiotic
(b) an infection in deep tissues of the body
(c) an infection that covers a large area of the body
(d) an infection that infects more than two organs
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5. What destroys many types of bacteria?
(a) Narrow-spectrum antibiotics
(b) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
(c) Porins
(d) Hydrophilic
6. The bacteriostatic strategy is a direct hit, killing the pathogen.
(a) True
(b) False
7. What is the spectrum of antimicrobial activity?
(a) Broad-spectrum antibiotic
(b) Narrow-spectrum antibiotic
(c) The minimum number of different types of pathogenic microorgan-
isms that an antibiotic can destroy
(d) The number of different types of pathogenic microorganisms that an
antibiotic can destroy
8. Sulfanilamide is a
(a) Cell wall inhibitor
(b) Protein inhibitor
(c) Antimetabolite
(d) DNA inhibitor
9. The bacteriostasis strategy causes the host’s immune system to fight the
pathogen through phagocytosis.
(a) True
(b) False
10. Penicillin is a cell wall inhibitor.
(a) True
(b) False
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Final Exam
1. What microorganisms can be harmed by oxygen?
(a) Obligate aerobes
(b) Facultative anaerobes
(c) Obligate anaerobes
(d) Free radicals
2. An inoculating loop is used to insert a pathogen into the patient's mouth.
(a) True
(b) False
3. Which microorganisms can use oxygen when present and continue to
grow without it?
(a) Obligate aerobes
(b) Facultative anaerobes
(c) Obligate anaerobes
(d) Free radicals
4. Facultative anaerobes require oxygen.
(a) True
(b) False
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5. A medium containing no living organisms is called a
(a) sterile culture medium
(b) an obligate medium
(c) a chemically defined medium
(d) a moisture-filled medium
6. A chemically defined medium must contain growth factors.
(a) True
(b) False
7. What is agar?
(a) A nutrient
(b) A vitamin
(c) A solidifying agent
(d) A broth
8. What culture provides growth of a certain microorganism but not others?
(a) Inherited culture
(b) Inhibited culture
(c) An infectious culture
(d) An enrichment culture
9. How can preserved bacteria cultures be revived?
(a) Oxygenation
(b) Hydration
(c) Hydration and liquid nutrient medium
(d) Oxygenation and liquid nutrient medium
10. A microorganism is a small organism that intakes and breaks down food
for energy and nutrients, excretes unused food as waste, and is capable of
reproduction.
(a) True
(b) False
11.Apathogenic microorganism is a microorganism that causes disease in a
host.
(a) True
(b) False
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12. A prokaryotic organism is a one-celled organism that does not have a dis-
tinct nucleus.
(a) True
(b) False
13. Why is a fungus called a eukaryotic microorganism?
(a) Because it has a nucleus, nuclear envelope, cytoplasm, and organelles.
(b) Because it has a nucleus and no nuclear envelope.
(c) Because it has a nucleus, nuclear envelope, and cytoplasm, but no
organelles.
(d) Because it has no nucleus, no nuclear envelope, no cytoplasm, and
no organelles.
14. Phagocytosis is the process by which a cell engulfs and digests solid
materials through the use of pseudopods or “false feet.”
(a) True
(b) False
15. Germ Theory states that a disease-causing microorganism should be
destroyed.
(a) True
(b) False
16. Adenisine triphosphate is the preferred energy-storage molecule.
(a) True
(b) False
17. What reaction requires energy as small molecules are combined to form
large molecules?
(a) Anabolic reaction
(b) Catabolic reaction
(c) Anabolism
(d) Hydrolases reaction
18. What reaction releases energy as large molecules are broken down
(metabolized) into small molecules?
(a) Anabolic reaction
(b) Catabolic reaction
(c) Anabolism
(d) Hydrolases reaction
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19. Activation energy is the energy required to begin a chemical reaction.
(a) True
(b) False
20. What process is used to break down glucose?
(a) Anabolic reaction
(b) Catabolic reaction
(c) Anabolism
(d) Hydrolases reaction
21. What is it called when a molecule donates electrons?
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation reduction
(d) Lactation
22. What is caused when there is a chemical denaturing of enzymes?
(a) Protein creation
(b) Lipid creation
(c) Very high or very low pH
(d) Saturation point is reached
23. Pyruvic acid blocks active sites from bonding to a substrate.
(a) True
(b) False
24. The spontaneous decaying and giving off of particles of radium is called
(a) catalyst
(b) chemically stable
(c) half-life
(d) radioactivity
25. A differential element is the name given to a chemical element whose
atoms have a different number of neutrons.
(a) True
(b) False
26. The valence shell is used in bonding together two
(a) stable atoms
(b) inorganic stable atoms
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(c) organic stable atoms
(d) unstable atoms
27. A reaction that breaks the bond between atoms of a molecule or com-
pound is called a decomposition reaction.
(a) True
(b) False
28. What kind of reaction performs synthesis and decomposition?
(a) Endergonic reaction
(b) Fusion reaction
(c) Fission reaction
(d) Exchange reaction
29. The reaction rate is increased by
(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) orientation
(d) all of the above
30. The enzyme temporarily bonds to the substrate and then positions the sub-
strate to increase the likelihood that the substrate will collide with another
atom, ion, or molecule and thereby bring about a chemical reaction.
(a) True
(b) False
31. Describe a gram-positive cell wall.
(a) A gram-positive cell wall has many layers that repels the crystal of
violet dye when the cell is stained.
(b) A gram-positive cell wall has many layers of peptidoglygan that
retain the crystal of violet dye when the cell is stained.
(c) A gram-positive cell wall has one layer that retains the crystal of vio-
let dye when the cell is stained.
(d) A gram-positive cell wall has one layer of peptidoglygan that repels
the crystal of violet dye when the cell is stained.
32. The cytoplasmic membrane is a membrane that provides a selective bar-
rier between the nucleus and the cell’s internal structures.
(a) True
(b) False
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33. What regulates the movement of molecules through the cytoplasmic
membrane?
(a) Channel proteins
(b) Transmembrane proteins
(c) Peripheral proteins
(d) Fluid proteins
34. What forms channels in the cytoplasmic membrane and permits the flow
of molecules through the cytoplasmic membrane?
(a) Integral proteins
(b) Transmembrane proteins
(c) Peripheral proteins
(d) Lipoproteins
35. What is it called when a substance moves from a higher-concentration
region to a lower-concentration region?
(a) Osmosis
(b) Cytoplasmic diffusion
(c) Facilitated diffusion
(d) Simple diffusion
36. What is it called when water moves from a higher region of concentra-
tion to a region of lower concentration?
(a) Osmosis
(b) Cytoplasmic diffusion
(c) Facilitated diffusion
(d) Simple diffusion
37. Passive transport is the movement of a substance across the cytoplasmic
membrane against the gradient by using energy provided by the cell.
(a) True
(b) False
38. What are the two types of exocytosis?
(a) Facilitated diffusion and passive transport
(b) Phagocytosis and pinocytosis
(c) Hydrolysis and cytosol
(d) None of the above
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39. What is a nanometer?
(a) 1/1,000,000,000 of a meter
(b) 1/100,000 of a meter
(c) 1/1,000,000 of a meter
(d) 1,000,000,000 meters
40. Immersing a specimen in oil maintains good resolution at magnifications
greater than 100×.
(a) True
(b) False
41. A photograph taken by an electron microscope is called
(a) a TEM
(b) a micrograph
(c) a SEM
(d) a palladium
42. You stain a smear using
(a) crystal violet
(b) caboxymethyl cellulose
(c) cellulose
(d) a fixation process
43. Why is a specimen stained?
(a) A stain is used to label a specimen.
(b) A stain is used to determine the size of a specimen.
(c) A stain adheres to the specimen, causing more light to be reflected
by the specimen into the microscope.
(d) A stain is used to determine the density of a specimen.
44. You use a wet mount to observe an inorganic specimen under a microscope.
(a) True
(b) False
45. The naming convention used to group organisms is called
(a) identification
(b) nomenclature
(c) systemics
(d) classification
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46. Fungi have a cell wall composed of peptidoglycan and muramic acid.
(a) True
(b) False
47. Identification is the process of observing and classifying organisms into
a standard group.
(a) True
(b) False
48. A genus consists of one or more lower ranks called species.
(a) True
(b) False
49. Which group acquires nutrients through absorption?
(a) animals
(b) plants
(c) fungi
(d) humans
50. Taxonomy is the classification of organisms based on a scientifically
proven natural relationship.
(a) True
(b) False
51. Which group acquires nutrients through photosynthesis?
(a) animals
(b) fungi
(c) humans
(d) none of the above
52. The arrangement of organisms into groups based on similar characteris-
tics is called
(a) nomenclature
(a) identification
(c) classification
(d) systemics
53. The Southern blot technique is used for detecting specific restriction
fragments.
(a) True
(b) False
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